ICC world cup live score

Tech Buzz: Meet Ritot - the first projection watch

 

It's been a long time since mankind has stopped peering into the sky at the sun to calculate the time. Clocks were invented for this purpose. The first clock was created thousands of years ago. There were various types of clock, including sundial, clepsydra, hourglass and others. 

    Since then, the evolution of clock has continued and brought to us the first wristwatch. Every year there emerge dozens of new models of wirstwatch, but the operating principle has not changed.
    We live in a new progressive millennium; everything around us progresses and develops. In our opinion, clock design should be both technically innovative and fashionable. Watches demonstrating that humanity does not stand still. These are the watches we bring into life.

read more at https://www.indiegogo.com/projects/ritot-the-first-projection-watch

Science and Tech : NASA's Spitzer telescope witnesses asteroid smashup -Crash, bang, wallop

Nasa's Spitzer Space Telescope has spotted a huge eruption of dust around a young star. They believe the dust cloud was the result of a smashup between large asteroids.
This type of collision can eventually lead to the formation of planets, researchers say.
Scientists had been regularly tracking the star, called NGC 2547-ID8, when it surged with a huge amount of fresh dust between August 2012 and January 2013. "We think two big asteroids crashed into each other, creating a huge cloud of grains the size of very fine sand, which are now smashing themselves into smithereens and slowly leaking away from the star," said lead author and graduate student Huan Meng of the University of Arizona, Tucson.


The aftermath of a large asteroid impact around NGC 2547-ID8, a 35-million-year-old sun-like star. Nasa's Spitzer Space Telescope witnessed a giant surge in dust around the star, the result of two asteroids colliding.

read more at http://phys.org/news/2014-08-spitzer-telescope-witnesses-asteroid-smashup.html




UPSC Civil Services IAS Prelims (GS CSAT) 2014 Answer key for all sets for paper 1 and paper 2: Fully solved papers

UPSC Civil Services prelims exam 2014 was conducted by UPSC on 24 August 2014 (Sunday). The exam has 2 papers Paper 1 and paper 2(CSAT). The paper has 100 questions. The questions are MCQs and objective by nature. The paper 1 was earlier known as GS(General Studies) paper.
We'll provide all answers for each question once the question papers are available, until please share yours experience and answers here.

The solved question paper(2013) will help you in preparing for the upcoming state civil services and other competitive exams as well. It's time now to kick-start your exam preparation in the right direction.

please find the 2013 solved paper:

1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical    Region
Feature
(a) Abyssinian
Plateau : Arabia
(b) Atlas
Mountains : North-Western Africa
(c) Guiana
Highlands : South-Western Africa
(d) Okavango
Basin : Patagonia

4. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:
1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

9. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

10. Consider the following animals:
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Consider the following statements
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

13. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to
(a) the earth's rotation on its axis
(b) the earth's revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c) latitudinal position of the place
(d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

15. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

16. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
(b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
(c) exists as groundwater
(d) exists as soil moisture

17. Consider the following pairs:
1. Nokrek Bio-
sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak)
Lake : Barail Range
3. Namdapha
National Park : Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

18. Consider the following:
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

19. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

20. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d) writing off all peasant debts

21. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State

22. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above

23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

24. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action
(b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
(d) None of the above

25. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation

26. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar /Block Development Officer / Mandai Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha

27. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
(a) bacteria
(b) protozoa
(c) moulds
(d) viruses

28. 'Economic Justice' the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in
(a) the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above

29. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

31. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements :
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

32. Consider the following pairs

National Park                   River flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National Park     : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b)3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

33. Consider the following organisms
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is / are used as biofertilizer / biofertilizers

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(e) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

34. Which of the following adds / add nitrogen to the soil?
1. Excretion of urea by animals
2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

35. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
 
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only     
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
(d) There is no material difference between the two

37. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a) The extinction of the flame of desire
(b) The complete annihilation of self
(c) A state of bliss and rest
(d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension

38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because
(a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919             
(b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of  Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces             
(c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

40. Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Cripps Proposals
(c) Simon Commission Report
(d) Wavell Plan

41. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of
(a) all import and transactions of a during a given period normally a year
(b) goods exported from a country during a year
(c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d) capital movements from one country to another

42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
(a) market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy

44. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

(a) economic development     
(b) redemption of public debt     
(c) adjusting the balance of  payments                 
(d) reducing the foreign debt     

45. Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only     
(b) 2 only         
(e) 1, 2 and 3     
(d)  None of the statements given above is correct     

46. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

48. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a) Ecotone
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range

49. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a) NO2, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO, 02 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO2 and N02 at low temperature
(d) High concentration of N02, O3 and CO in the evening

50. Consider the following minerals
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Consider the following statements:

The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government
3. of the Auditor examines the report Comptroller and General of India

Which of the statements given a bove is / are correct?

(a) 1 only     
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 3 only     
(d) 1, 2 and 3

52. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1. Dadu Dayal
2. Guru Nanak
3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

53. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is / are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

54. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b) rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into the sea
(c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d) continental shelf is undulating

55. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3

56. Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4


57. Consider the following historical places:
1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is / are also known for mural paintings?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only    
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None


58. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1 . Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transrmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

59. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only     
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is / are the reason / reasons?

1. Thermal difference between land and water
2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

61. Which of the following is / are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3.  Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

62. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1 . They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich In nitrogen and potash.
3. Tiley are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

63. Consider the following statements:
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.             
2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.                     
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

64. Consider the following crops
1.Cotton             
2. Groundnut     
3. Rice             
4.Wheat             

Which of these are Kharif crops?
    
(a) 1 and 4         
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3     
(d) 2, 3 and 4     

65. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."

The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

(a) African Savannah
(b) Central Asian Steppe
(c) North American Prairie
(d) Siberian Tundra

66. Consider the following statements :
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Disguised unemployment generally means

(a) large number of people remain unemployed
(b) alternative employment is not available
(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d) productivity of workers is low

68. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Iegislation.

Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

69. Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements :
1.Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above produces the thunder

73. Consider the following pairs :
 Tribe                    State
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
3. Dongaria : Odisha
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.Demand deposits with the banks
2.Time deposits with the banks
3.Savings deposits with the banks
4.Currency

The correct sequence of these decreasing order of Liquidity is
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 4-1-3-2

75.In the context of Indian economy,Open Market Operations' refers to
(a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d) None of the above

76. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

(a) agriculture
(b) micro and small enterprises
(c) weaker sections
(d) All of the above

77.Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a) Engineering
(b) Paper and pulp
(e) Textiles
(d) Thermal power

78. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a) Promoting skill development
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) Privatization of higher education

79. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called 'Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism

80. Annie Besant was
1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2. the founder of the Theo-sophical Society
3. once the President of the Indian National Congress Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

81.The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

(a) imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms by Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

82. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by

1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?

(a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b) Foreign-currency assets, gold oldings of the RBI and SDRs
(c) Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d) Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

84. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

85.Supply of money remammg the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment

86.Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b) concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment
(c) rate of respiration is decreased
(d) there is an increase in humidity

87. Consider the following fauna of India:
1.Gharial
2.Leatherback turtle
3.Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

88. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because
(a) the actual between the is increased area of contact wheel and axle
(b) the effective between the is increased area of contact wheel and axle
(c) the effective between the is reduced area of contact wheel and axle
(d) None of the above statements is correct

89. Consider the following phenomena:
1. Size of the sun at dusk
2. Colour of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar beingvisible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 5

90. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain.

Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
(b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
(d) leaves get damaged during transplantation

92. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a) there is technical progress in the world economy
(b) there is population growth in X
(c) there is capital formation in X
(d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy

93. Which of the following statements is / are correct?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by  biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

95. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz, gravity electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. with reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b) Electromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge
(c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
(d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and nutrons inside the nuclear of an atom.

96. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importances of discovering this particle?

1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enables us in the near future to develope the technology to transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1. resist drought and increase absorptive area
2. tolerate extremes of PH
3. Resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

98. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b) sum of total consumption and investement expenditure
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals
(d) money value of final goods and services produced

100. Which of the following grants/ grant direct credit assistance to rural households ?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct anser using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Find Answer Here

1

 a

26

d

51

b

76

d

2

 d

27

c

52

b

77

d

3

 b

28

b

53

b

78

a

4

 b

29

b

54

c

79

a

5

a

30

d

55

d

80

c

6

b

31

a

56

b

81

c

7

a

32

d

57

b

82

d

8

a

33

b

58

b

83

b

9

c

34

c

59

a

84

d

10

b

35

a

60

a

85

b

11

 d

36

b

61

a

86

c

12

c

37

c

62

c

87

c

13

d

38

c

63

a

88

c*

14

b

39

c

64

b

89

c

15


40

b

65

b

90

a

16

c

41

a

66

a

91

c

17

a

42

d

67

c

92

c

18

d

43

d

68

d

93

c

19

d

44

a

69

a

94

d

20

a

45

b

70

d

95

a

21

d

46

b

71

c

96

a

22

d*

47


72

c

97

       d

23


48

b

73

a

98

b

24

c*

49

a

74

d

99

      a

25

c

50

c

75

c

100

a*


Science and Tech:Towards more efficient solar cells

Potential use of a layer of silicon nanocrystals (large balls) and erbium ions (small balls) as a 'spectral shaper' for photovoltaic applications. This layer converts high-energy UV photons into infrared photons. These lower-energy photons are absorbed by an underlying solar cell. Credit: Fundamental Research on Matter (FOM)


A layer of silicon nanocrystals and erbium ions may help solar cells to extract more energy from the ultraviolet (UV, high-energy) part of the solar spectrum. Experimental physicists from the FOM Foundation, the STW Technology Foundation and the University of Amsterdam published this news in Nature Communications on 13th August 2014. When conventional silicon-based solar cells absorb UV light, much of its energy is lost in the form of heat. The researchers showed that this excess energy can be used to excite multiple erbium ions. This causes the ions to emit light, which can then be converted into electricity.

Conventional solar cells can only convert a small part of the solar spectrum into electricity efficiently. Low-energy light particles (photons) are not absorbed, as they do not have enough energy to bridge the band gap of the material from which solar cells are made. By contrast, high-energy photons can be absorbed, but in just a few picoseconds (10-12 seconds) much of their energy is transformed into heat. This limits maximum efficiency to just 30 percent.

Fast and efficient

Saba Saeed and her colleagues have now shown that the conversion efficiency can potentially be increased by making better use of the energy contained in these high-energy photons. This can be achieved with a layer consisting of silicon dioxide, silicon nanocrystals (particles with a size of a billionth of a meter) and erbium ions. The silicon nanocrystals transfer its excess energy to the erbium ions, before it is lost as heat. This leads to the emission of several low-energy infrared photons per absorbed photon, which can produce extra electricity. Compared to sunlight concentrators, which sometimes also make use of rare-earth metals such as erbium, this technique holds the prospect of a higher efficiency.

Spectral shaper

While the process has been demonstrated experimentally, it has not yet been used in a photovoltaic architecture (a solar cell). In the future, a layer of silicon nanocrystals and erbium ions could be placed on top of solar cells as a 'spectral shaper', to enhance their efficiency. The 'spectral shapers' would convert high-energy UV photons to several low-energy photons, which can then be used to generate electricity in a solar cell.


read more at
Explore further: http://phys.org/news/2014-08-efficient-solar-cells.html


Tech Update: “Open In Terminal” action in Nautilus in Ubuntu 14.04

nautilus-open-terminal and nautilus-actions packages are available in Universe repository of Ubuntu 14.04. So run the below commands to enable universe repository and also to install above mentioned packages.

sudo add-apt-repository universe
sudo apt-get update
sudo apt-get install nautilus-open-terminal
sudo apt-get install nautilus-actions
Finally run nautilus -q command to quit nautilus.Now you can be able to see Open in terminal option on right-clicking.

ACT paper pattern and ACT Exam Scheme: A national college admissions examination

The ACT is a standardized test which acts as a national college admissions examination. The examination tests you on four key test areas: English, Mathematics, Reading and Science. Also there is an ACT plus writing test which includes the mentioned test areas along with an optional 30 minute writing test.

ACT Exam Pattern

The ACT consist of four multiple choice test papers and an optional written test.

English

This test measures the candidates written English ability and checks his/hers rhetorical ability. There are 75 questions asked in this section and 45 minutes are provided to complete the part. The test covers:

Usage/Mechanics

  • punctuation
    • Rhetorical Skills

    Mathematics

    The mathematics part of ACT is incorporated to check the candidate's mathematical skills that the student has acquired over the time and till the beginning of grade 12. For this section you are required to have knowledge of basic formulas and computational skills to answer the problems, but you are not required to know complex formulas and perform extensive computation. The section has 60 questions which are to be completed in 60 minutes.

    Reading

    This part of the paper deals in reading comprehensions. This part of the paper is has 40 questions which are to be completed in 35 minutes. The reading part will deal with questions which will deal with direct statements or with implied meanings. Either ways you are to:

    • determine main ideas
    • locate and interpret significant details
    • understand sequences of events
    • make comparisons
    • comprehend cause-effect relationships
    • determine the meaning of context-dependent words, phrases, and statements
    • draw generalizations
    • analyze the author's or narrator's voice and method

    Sciences

    This part of ACT which measures the interpretation, analysis, evaluation, reasoning, and problem-solving skills required in natural sciences. This part of the paper is has 40 questions which are to be completed in 35 minutes. The test presents several sets of scientific information, each followed by a number of multiple-choice test questions. The scientific information is conveyed in one of three different formats:

    • data representation (graphs, tables, and other schematic forms)
    • research summaries (descriptions of several related experiments)
    • conflicting viewpoints (expressions of several related hypotheses or views that are inconsistent with one another)

    Optional writing test

    There is also an optional writing test in the paper which is designed to measure the writing skills of a student that he/she acquires in high school English classes and in entry-level college composition courses. The test consists of one writing prompt that will define an issue and describe two points of view on that issue. You are asked to respond to the question and explain your position on the. In doing so, you may adopt one or the other of the perspectives described in the prompt, or you may present a different point of view on the issue. Your score will not be affected by the point of view you take on the issue. The section is to be completed within 30 minutes.

  • grammar and usage
  • sentence structure
  • strategy
  • organization
  • style
  • reference:  http://www.successcds.net/study-abroad/act-paper-pattern-exam-scheme.html


    PhD Admission Notification 2014: University of Calcutta

    University of Calcutta announces admission for Ph.D in Marine Science Programme for 2014 session.

    No of Seats: 12 (Reservation policy will be followed as per rules)

    Name of Supervisors/Guides: Prof. T.K. Jana; Prof. S.K. Sarkar; Prof. T.K. De; Dr. S. K Mukhopadhyay

    All are faculty of Dept. of Marine Science, Calcutta University & Prof. S.K Das, Dept of Chemical Engineering, Calcutta University



    University of Calcutta

    (Department of Marine Science), 35, B.C. Road, Kolkata-700019, Website www.caluniv.ac.in
    Application form is available on www.caluniv.ac.in

    Date of submission of the Application Form from 24th Aug 2014 to 1st Sept 2014

    Admission Test will be taken on 03rd Sept 2014 (01.00 pm to 02.00 p.m.) based upon M.Sc Syllabus of Marine Science

    Interview Date: 10th Sept 2014 (time 11.00 am, Venue: Chamber of the Head of the



    PhD Admission Notification 2014: Gandhigram Rural Institute

    The Gandhigram Rural Institute (GRI), Tamil Nadu has invited application for admission to Ph.D Courses for the Session August-2014

    In the various Disciplines (refer the link: http://www.ruraluniv.ac.in/phdspec14.pdf)

    Eligibility

    Candidates (Indian / Foreigner) who have studied under 10+2+3+2 years pattern or 10+2+5 years or 11+1+3+2 or 12+2+ 3+3 or 10+2+4+2 pattern of education and qualified for the award of the Master's Degree in relevant discipline in Gandhigram Rural Institute - Deemed University (GRI-DU/GRI) or any other university recognized by the University Grants Commission in relevant discipline with not less than 55% marks (50% for SC/ST and part-time non-teacher candidates) or an equivalent grade are eligible
    In addition, he / she should have qualified the entrance test conducted by GRI or should have obtained M.Phil or qualified the UGC-JRF /NET/SLET/Lecturership / GATE / CSIR /ICAR /ICSSR or other fellowships or passed equivalent examinations

    Entrance Test: An entrance test will be conducted by the controller of examinations

    The question paper will be prepared totally for 2 hours; one hour for research aptitude test (general) and one hour for the subject test

    Application Form The application form along with the prospectus can be obtained in person from the Deputy Registrar (Academic), The Gandhigram Rural Institute-Deemed University, Gandhigram-624302, Dindigul District, Tamil Nadu on cash payment of Rs.1000/- or through DD for Rs 1000/- drawn in favour of "The Registrar, The Gandhigram Rural Institute", payable at Canara Bank, Gandhigram (Code 8500) / State Bank of India, Ambathurai (Code 3373) and any Nationalized/Scheduled Bank in Dindigul

    Candidates can also download the application form from website www.ruraluniv.ac.in

    In such cases Demand Draft should be enclosed for the cost of application and registration fee along with filled in application form

    The filled in application form enclosing copies of necessary certificates are to be submitted to "The Deputy Registrar (Academic), The Gandhigram Rural Institute", Gandhigram 624302, Dindigul District, Tamil Nadu

    Last date for submission of completed application forms is 30th August 2014

     

    The Gandhigram Rural Institute

    Deemed University, (Re-Accredited by NAAC with 'A' Grade), Gandhigram-624302, Dindigul District, Tamilnadu, India, Tel: 0451-2452371, Email: grucc@ruraluniv.ac.in, Website


    Upcoming MBA Entrance Exams 2014 for 2015 admissions and Last Date of Application

    The Master of Business Administration (MBA) is a master's degree in business administration.
    Given below  is the list of upcoming MBA Entrance Exams in the  2014 and 2015  for admission to MBA Programmes in Top Business Schools in India amongst others

    Examination

    Exam Date

    Last Date of Application

    Common Admission Test (CAT) 2014

    16th and 22nd November 2014

    30th September 2014

    Management Aptitude Test (MAT) 2014

    Date for Paper Based Test: 07 Sept.r 2014 (Sunday)

    Date for Computer Based Test: 13 Sept. 2014 (Saturday)

    23 August 2014

    IGNOU – OPENMAT 2014 – XXXVI

    17th August 2014, Sunday

    15th July 2014

    IIFT 2014 Entrance Exam 2014

    23rd November 2014

    03rd September 2014

    NMIMS Management Aptitude Test (NMAT) 2015

    07th Oct., 2014
    to 20th Dec., 2014

    04th October, 2014

    AICTE CMAT 2015-2016

    Computer based test dates: 25th September 2014 to 29th September 2014

    25th August 2014

    IBSAT 2014 MBA Entrance Exam 10th Dec.,, 2014 to 31st Dec., 2014
    01 Dec., 2014
    IIFT MBA-IB Entrance Exam 2014 23rd November 2014
    03rd September 2014

    Other upcoming MBA entrance exam include state for Maharashtra CET (MAHCET ), Karnataka (KMAT), Tamilnadu (TANCET), Andhra Pradesh and Telangana(ICET) and other states and National MBA Entrance Tests like AICTE CMAT and AIMS ATMA.


    Educational Buzz: Top 10 Hotel Management Colleges in India



    reference:  http://www.successcds.net/Career/qna/top-10-hotel-management-colleges-in-india-12357.html


    The following is the list of Top 10 Hotel Management Colleges across India (In no particular Order)

    Institute of Hotel Management

    Catering & Nutrition,

    Pusa, New Delhi – 110012

    Institute of Hotel Management – Mumbai

    Veer Savarkar Marg,

    Dadar (W), Mumbai- 400 028

    Welcomgroup Graduate School – Manipal

    Madhav Nagar, Manipal,

    KA-576104

    Institute of Hotel Management – Chennai

    C.I.T. Campus, Tharamani,

    Chennai 600 113

    Institute of Hotel Management – Hyderabad

    F-Row, D. D. Colony Vidyanagar,

    Hyderabad, AP-500007

    Institute of Hotel Management – Ahmedabad

    Bhaijipura Patia, Kudasan,

    Adalaj, Gandhinagar,

    Gujarat- 382421

    Institute of Hotel Management – Gwalior

    Airport Road, Maharajpura,

    Gwalior (M.P.) – 474005

     

    Banarsidas Chandiwala Institute of Hotel Management and Catering Technology – Delhi

    Chandiwala Estate,

    Maa Anandmai Marg,

    Kalkaji, New Delhi-110019

     

    Rizvi College – Mumbai

    Sherly Rajan Rd, Rizvi Complex,

    Bandra West, Mumbai,

    MH-400050

     

    NSHM School of Hotel Management – Durgapur

    Arrah, Shibtala,

    Via Muchipara

    Durgapur-713 212